Multiple Choice Questions on Protein Synthesis (Cell Biology II).

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Questions

1. Mitosis consists of four distinct stages which of the following sequences represent the correct order in which it occurs?

I   – Metaphase

II  – Telophase

III – Prophase

IV – Anaphase

A. I, II, III and IV

B. III, I, II and IV

C. IV, I, II and III

D. III, I, IV and II

2. What stage in mitotic division is represented in the diagram illustrated above

A. Prophase

B. Telophase

C. Anaphase

D. Interphase

3.Which of the following features is typical of mitotic metaphase?

A. Homologous chromosomes pair up

B. Nuclear membrane is visible

C. Crossing over occurs

D. Chromatids arrange themselves on the equator.

4. Centrioles play specific roles during division of the

A. ribosome

B. nucleus

C. mitochondrion

C. chloroplast

5. Meiosis plays a more significant role in evolution because

A. Bivalents are produced

B. Crossing over occurs

C. Homologous chromosomes pair up

D. the division occurs twice

6. All the following are significance of mitosis except:

A. Brings about multiplication of cell and hence growth of organisms.

B. Helps to preserve the constitution of organisms.

C. Helps in vegetative propagation of organs such as bulbs and corms.

D. Leads to the formation of haploid gametes or haploid spores.

7. Which of the following statements about chromosomes is correct?

A. All the chromosomes of the same species are the same in shape.

B. The number of chromosomes present in a species is constant

C. They are neatly arranged in the cytoplasm.

D. They bear ribosomes on their outer membrane.

8. A normal chromosome consists of two halves called the:

A. alleles

B. centromere

C. chromatids

D. Gene

9. Meiotic division will not take place in the:

A. mammalian ovary

B. pollen grain

C. ovary of flowering plants

D. mammalian bladder.

10. In flowering plants, meiosis is likely to take place in the:

A. leaf                                 

B. ovule

C. root

D. Stigma

11. At the end of mitosis, the number of cells produced from a parent cells is:

A. Four

B. Six

C. Eight

D. Two

12. The organelle of animal cell which forms spindle fibres during cell division is the:

A. centriole

B. lysosome

C. endoplasmic reticulum

D. Golgi apparatus.

13. Which of the following is the precise location of the gene?

A. Chromosomes

B. Centrioles

C. centrosome

D. Ribosome

14. Which of the following is not a constituent of DNA?

A. Purine

B. Phosphate

C. cytosin

D. Uracil

15. The character producing factors in living organisms are

A. chromosomes

B. genes

C. chromatids

D. chromosomes

16. A plant cell has 14 chromosomes prior to mitosis. What is the number of chromosomes in the daughter cells?

A. 7

B. 14

C. 28

D. 56

17. If the number of chromosomes in the nucleus of a male organism is 12, what will be the number of chromosomes in the body of a female organism of the same species.

A. 6

B. 12

C. 48

D. 24

18. A newly developed rice has a chromosome number of 12 in the zygote. What is its diploid chromosome number?

A. 6

B. 12

C. 18

D. 24

19. Meiosis is important because it:

A. maintains the number of chromosomes in successive generations.

B. is the means of asexual reproduction in flowering plants.

C. ensures that the two daughter cells are genetically identical.

D. brings about growth in multicellular organisms

20. The two structures labelled II are referred to as:

A. Sister chromatids

B. Non sister chromatids

C. Homologous chromosomes

D. Spindle fibres

21. What stage in the cell cycle is illustrated in the diagram?

A. Telophase

B. Anaphase

C. Metaphase

D. Prophase

22. Meiosis occurs in:

A. somatic cells

B. all types of cells

C. sperm cells

D. Germ cells

23. Which of the following statements about mitosis is false?

A. Four daughter cells are produced

B. Chiasmata are not formed

C. Bivalents are not formed

D. The process does not lead to variation.

24. In mitosis, the number of cell is:

A. halved

B. doubled

C. unchanged

D. Trippled

25. The process is called

A. Mutation

B. Crossing over

C. Cell maturation

D. Replication

26. How many chromosome will be in the gamete if the normal cell has four chromosomes?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 6

D. 8

27. DNA molecules always have:

A. equal number of phosphate groups, purine, and pyrimidine.

B. equal number of ribose sugars, purines, and pyrimidine.

C. equal number of purines and pyrimidines

D. fixed number of nucleotides and nucleosides.

28. Which of the following substances in not present in the DNA strand?

A. Phosphate

B. Cytosine

C. Thymine  

D. Uracil

29. Adenine pairs with thymine because:

A. the two occurs in the same nucleic acid

B. one is a strong base and the other a weak base.

C. two purine bases easily pair up

D. one is a purine base  and the other is a

30. Which of the following are constituents of the DNA?

I. Uracil                          II.  Cytocine

III. Phosphate               IV. Purine

A. I and II only

B. III and IV only

C. I, II and III only

D. II, III and IV only

31. The diagram is an illustration of the

A. DNA molecule

B. RNA molecule

C. Ribosome

D. Chromosome

32. The organic base absent in ribonucleic acid is;

A. thymine

B. Cytosine

C. guanine

D. Adenine

33. DNA replication occurs in a cell during:

A. interphase of mitosis

B. metaphase of meiosis I

C. anaphase of mitosis

D. prophase of mitosis

34. The purine bases in DNA are

A. adenine and guanine

B. adenine and uracil

C. cytocine and guanine

D. cytocine and thymine

35. Adenine pairs with thymine because:

A. the two occur on the same nucleic acid,

B. one is a strong base, the other is weak

C. two purine bases easily pair up

D. one is purine, the other is pyrimidine.

36. The organic base absent in ribonucleic acid is called:

A. thymine

B. cytosine

C. guanine

D. Adenine

37. During protein synthesis, the anticodon of transfer RNA (tRNA) pairs with

A. amino acid in the polypeptide

B. DNA nucleotide

C. ribosomal RNA nucleotide base

D. messenger RNA nucleotide base

38. The sequence of amino acids in a developing protein chain in a cell is determine by:

A. mRNA

B. ribosome

C. RNA polymerase

D. tRNA

39. Which of the following features is typical of mitotic metaphase?

A. Homologous chromosomes pair up.

B. Nuclear membrane is visible

C. Crossing over occurs

D. Chromatids arranged themselves on the equator.

40. In the formation of a mRNA molecules, thymine is replaced by

A. adenine

B. Cytocine

C. guanine

D. uracil

41. The pyrimidine bases found in DNA are:

A. adenine and guanine

B. adenine and cytosine

C. cytocine and guanine

D. cytosine and thymine

42. In the formation of mRNA molecule, thymine is replaced by:

A. adenine

B. cytosine

C. guanine

D. Uracil

43. Translation in proteins synthesis is carried out by:

A. DNA

B. tRNA

C. rRNA

D. mRNA

44. Where is the structure found in an animal cell?

A. Cell membrane

B. Chromosome

C. Mitochondrion

D. Ribosome

45. Which of the following statements about chromosome is correct?

A. They bear ribosomes on their outer membrane

B. They are neatly arranged in the cytoplasm.

C. The number present in a species is constant

D. All chromosomes in a species are the same in shape

46. The chemical bond that holds the bases of the two strands of DNA together is

A. hydrogen bond

B. Oxygen bond

C. electrovalent bond

D. Covalent bond

47. When chromosomes replicate, they produce:

A. tissue

B. Nuclei

C. chromatids

D. Somatic cells

Consider the following steps in protein synthesis and use them to answer questions 9 and 10.

I. Attachment of mRNA to ribosome

II. Formation of peptide bond

III. Collection of amino acid by tRNA

IV. Formation of mRNA

48. The correct sequence of events during protein synthesis is:

A. I, II, III and IV

B. III, I, IV and II

C. IV, I, III and II

D. IV, III, II and I

49. Which of the sequences constitutes transcription of genetic code?

A. I

B. II

C. III

D. IV

50. In protein synthesis, the anticodon of tRNA pairs with a complimentary codon on the molecule of:

A. DNA

B. mRNA

C. RNA

D. rRNA

51. Replication of DNA molecule is catalysed by an enzyme called:

A. amylase

B. pepsin

C. ptylin

D. polymerase

52. Which of the following cells is haploid?

A. Oogonia

B. Primary spermatocytes

C. Primordial germ cell.

D. Polar body.

53. The function of the mitotic spindle is to

A. hold cells together

B. separate cells from each other

C. link the cell plate to the nuclear membrane

D. pull the chromosomes to the poles.

54. Separation of sister chromatids during meiosis occurs in:

A. metaphase II

B. anaphase II

C. prophase II

D. telophase II

55. The part labelled I is the

A. Chiasma

B. Centriole

C. Spindle fibre

D. Centromere

56. Meiosis takes plane

A. during growth and development

B. during gamete formation

C. during asexual reproduction

D. in somatic cells

57. If the haploid number of chromosomes in an organism is 26, then the chromosome number of each sperm is:

A. 13

B. 26

C. 52

D. 78

58. An apple plant can produce sexually and asexually. It has 40 chromosomes in its leaf cells. How many chromosome would be in each gamete and somatic cell?

A. 20 chromosome in the gamete and 10 in the somatic cell

B. 40 chromosome in the gamete and 20 in the somatic cell.

C. 20 chromosome in the gamete and 40 in the somatic cell

D. 40 chromosome in the gamete and 40 in the somatic cell

59. An organism having one pair of identical genes is

A. a heterozygote

B. hybrid

C. an allelomorth

D. a homozygote

56. The correct order of the stages in mitosis is:

A. anaphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase.

B. anaphase,  metaphase, prophase, telophase.

C. prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase.

D. prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

57. Which of the following is not a type of finger print?

A. Whorl

B. Compound

C. Simple

D. Arch

58. The hereditary material in a cell is known as

A. ADP

B. RNA

C. ATP

D. DNA

59. The two strands that make up a single chromosome are called:

A. chromatins

B. centromere

C. tetrads

D. Chromatids

60. At what stage of the process of mitosis are the chromatids arranged along the equator of the spindle?

A. Anaphase

B. Interphase

C. Metaphase

D. Telophase

61. If telophase fails to occur during mitosis in a dividing diploid cell, which of the  following consequences will take place?

A. Spindle fibres will not be formed

B. Chromatids will migrate to the poles

C. No new cells will be formed.

D. the cells will shrink.

62. The process of cell division by meiosis takes place only in

A. Red bone marrow

B. Skin cells

C. reproductive organs

D. lymphocytes

63. The number of chromosomes found in the somatic cells of human is

A. 23

B. 45

C. 46

D. 72

64. Which of the following cells in mammals do not undergo cell division?

A. Cells of the cornified layer

B. Cells of the germinal epithelium

C. Epithelial cells of the neck

D. Cells of the Malpighian layer

65. The failure of homologous chromosomes to separate during meiosis is known as

A. crossing over

B. non- disjunction

C. synapse

D. transcription

66. Which of the following processes responsible for the increase in length and dry mass in a root tip?

A. Meiosis

B.  Mitosis

C. Absorption

D. conjugation

67. Which of the following types of cells is most frequently replaced replaced?

A. Bone cells

B. Cheek cells

C. Nerve cells

D. Sperm cells


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